العربية

Saudi Board Part One Examination – Family Medicine: free practice test

Start with 10 free questions to see what needs more practice. Finish to see your score, weakest units and every option explained.

Back to Saudi Board Part One Examination – Family Medicine

Practice test questions with answers and explanations

Try the questions in the test above first, then open each one here to see the correct answer and why every other option is wrong.

01A 34-year-old woman presents with a 3-week history of headaches. The neurological examination is normal. When asked, she says her cousin was recently diagnosed with a brain tumour. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the consultation?

Practice question Unit: Family Medicine

  1. AElicit her ideas, concerns and expectations about the headache ✓ Correct answer

    Eliciting ideas, concerns and expectations (ICE) is a core step of the patient-centred method and lets the doctor target explanation to her actual fear.

  2. BBrain MRI now to relieve her anxiety about having a tumour

    Imaging is not indicated without red flags, and ordering it to settle anxiety before exploring the concern is poor practice.

  3. CExamine again, reassure her and refer to neurology today

    There are no red flags requiring specialist review, and referral skips the exploration that the consultation still needs.

  4. DReassure her that a normal examination excludes a tumour

    A normal examination lowers the probability but does not address her specific fear, and false reassurance before exploring it is rarely effective.

Reference: SCFHS Saudi Board Part One Blueprint – Family Medicine (2024–27), section: Family Medicine; McWhinney's Textbook of Family Medicine, 4th ed., chapter: Patient-Centered Clinical Method

02A 52-year-old man with a mid-upper arm circumference of 40 cm has an office reading of 152/94 mmHg using a standard adult cuff. Which measurement error is most likely to have affected this reading?

Practice question Unit: Internal Medicine

  1. AA cuff that is too large, underestimating pressure

    A standard cuff is too small, not too large, for a 40 cm arm.

  2. BMeasuring after 5 minutes of quiet seated rest

    Five minutes of seated rest is the correct technique, not an error.

  3. CMeasuring with the arm above heart level, raising pressure

    An arm above heart level lowers, not raises, the reading.

  4. DA cuff that is too small, overestimating pressure ✓ Correct answer

    A bladder that does not encircle about 80% of a large arm gives falsely high readings.

Reference: SCFHS Saudi Board Part One Blueprint – Family Medicine (2024–27), section: Internal Medicine; 2025 AHA/ACC/Multisociety Guideline for the Prevention, Detection, Evaluation and Management of High Blood Pressure in Adults, section: Accurate measurement of BP in the office

03A 14-year-old boy is concerned that he is the shortest in his class. His height has tracked along the 3rd centile with normal growth velocity. He is prepubertal, his bone age is 11.5 years, and his father had a late growth spurt. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Practice question Unit: Pediatric

  1. AFamilial short stature

    Familial short stature has a bone age equal to chronological age.

  2. BConstitutional growth delay ✓ Correct answer

    Normal velocity, delayed bone age, delayed puberty and a family history of late puberty indicate constitutional delay.

  3. CGrowth hormone deficiency

    GH deficiency typically causes reduced growth velocity.

  4. DAcquired primary hypothyroidism

    Hypothyroidism causes falling growth velocity and other features.

Reference: SCFHS Saudi Board Part One Blueprint – Family Medicine (2024–27), section: Pediatric; Rakel Textbook of Family Medicine, 9th ed., chapter: Growth and development

04A 26-year-old woman at 34 weeks reports that her baby has been moving less than usual since this morning. She has no pain or bleeding. What is the most appropriate first step?

Practice question Unit: Obstetrics and Gynecology

  1. AReassure her that movements fall near term

    Fetal movements do not normally decrease in late pregnancy; this is a common unsafe belief.

  2. BAdvise counting kicks at home for a day, then review

    Home counting delays assessment of a possibly compromised fetus.

  3. CConfirm the fetal heart, then arrange a CTG ✓ Correct answer

    After 28 weeks, the fetal heart is checked first, then a CTG is done to assess fetal wellbeing.

  4. DArrange a growth ultrasound within two weeks

    A routine growth scan two weeks later is too slow as a first step.

Reference: SCFHS Saudi Board Part One Blueprint – Family Medicine (2024–27), section: Obstetrics and Gynecology; RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 57: Reduced Fetal Movements (2011)

05A 35-year-old woman has severe right lower abdominal pain in the emergency department. A junior doctor wants to withhold morphine until the surgeon examines her, to avoid masking signs. What is the most appropriate response?

Practice question Unit: General Surgery

  1. AParacetamol until surgical review

    Paracetamol alone is inadequate for severe pain.

  2. BDelay pain relief until imaging is complete

    Leaving severe pain untreated causes avoidable suffering.

  3. CGive titrated opioid analgesia now ✓ Correct answer

    Early titrated opioid analgesia is humane, safe and does not mask the diagnosis.

  4. DAgree; analgesia masks peritonism

    Evidence shows opioids do not significantly reduce diagnostic accuracy.

Reference: SCFHS Saudi Board Part One Blueprint – Family Medicine (2024–27), section: General Surgery; Manterola C et al. Analgesia in patients with acute abdominal pain. Cochrane Database Syst Rev 2011

06A 40-year-old woman has a moderate depressive episode. She prefers medication and has no medical problems. Which medicine is most appropriate to start?

Practice question Unit: Psychiatry

  1. ASertraline ✓ Correct answer

    An SSRI such as sertraline is first-line because of efficacy, tolerability and safety in overdose.

  2. BLithium carbonate

    Lithium is for bipolar disorder or augmentation, not first-line.

  3. CDiazepam

    Benzodiazepines do not treat depression.

  4. DAmitriptyline

    Tricyclics are more toxic in overdose and have more side effects.

Reference: SCFHS Saudi Board Part One Blueprint – Family Medicine (2024–27), section: Psychiatry; NICE NG222 Depression in adults: treatment and management (2022)

07A 70-year-old woman is unresponsive and not breathing. The monitor shows sinus rhythm at 70/min, but no carotid pulse can be felt. How is this rhythm classified?

Practice question Unit: Emergency Medicine (Adult and Pediatric)

  1. AA perfusing rhythm, so cardiac arrest is excluded

    The absence of a pulse in an unresponsive patient means cardiac arrest.

  2. BPulseless electrical activity, non-shockable ✓ Correct answer

    Organised electrical activity without a pulse is PEA, which is managed with CPR and adrenaline and a search for causes.

  3. CAsystole with artefact on the monitor

    There are clear organised complexes, so this is not asystole.

  4. DPulseless VT, a shockable rhythm

    VT has wide, fast complexes.

Reference: SCFHS Saudi Board Part One Blueprint – Family Medicine (2024–27), section: Emergency Medicine (Adult and Pediatric); European Resuscitation Council Guidelines 2025

08A 35-year-old man has well-defined red plaques with silvery scale on his elbows, knees and scalp. His fingernails show pitting. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Practice question Unit: Dermatology

  1. AExtensive tinea corporis

    Tinea is annular and does not cause nail pitting.

  2. BPlaque psoriasis ✓ Correct answer

    Extensor plaques with silvery scale, scalp involvement and nail pitting are typical of psoriasis.

  3. CAtopic dermatitis

    Eczema favours flexures and is poorly defined.

  4. DLichen planus

    Lichen planus has purple, flat papules.

Reference: SCFHS Saudi Board Part One Blueprint – Family Medicine (2024–27), section: Dermatology; NICE CG153 Psoriasis: assessment and management (2012, updated 2017)

09A 38-year-old man has back pain radiating down the lateral leg to the top of his foot. He has weakness of big toe extension and reduced sensation on the dorsum of the foot. Reflexes are normal. Which nerve root is most likely affected?

Practice question Unit: Orthopedic and Musculoskeletal

  1. AL3

    L3 affects the anterior thigh.

  2. BL4

    L4 affects the knee reflex and medial leg.

  3. CS1

    S1 reduces the ankle reflex and affects the lateral foot and sole.

  4. DL5 ✓ Correct answer

    L5 radiculopathy causes weak big toe extension and dorsum of foot numbness, with normal reflexes.

Reference: SCFHS Saudi Board Part One Blueprint – Family Medicine (2024–27), section: Orthopedic and Musculoskeletal; Rakel Textbook of Family Medicine, 9th ed., chapter: Low back pain

10A 65-year-old woman has a severely painful red left eye, blurred vision, haloes around lights, headache and vomiting that started in a dim cinema. The pupil is fixed and mid-dilated and the cornea is hazy. What is the most appropriate action?

Practice question Unit: Ophthalmology

  1. AAntiemetic and review in 24 hours

    Delay risks permanent visual loss.

  2. BDilating drops to examine the fundus

    Dilating drops can worsen angle closure.

  3. CA triptan for presumed migraine

    Darkness dilates the pupil and worsens angle closure.

  4. DRefer to eye casualty the same day ✓ Correct answer

    Acute angle-closure glaucoma needs emergency treatment to lower intraocular pressure; lie the patient flat and arrange immediate transfer.

Reference: SCFHS Saudi Board Part One Blueprint – Family Medicine (2024–27), section: Ophthalmology; NICE CKS Glaucoma (2023)

Keep preparing for Saudi Board Part One Examination – Family Medicine

See also: Health Exams

All Health Exams (38)