SCFHS Classification Exam – Midwifery Specialist: free practice test

Practice question Unit: Pre-pregnancy and Family Planning

1. ASpecialist review to switch medication before conception ✓ Correct answer

   Arrange specialist preconception review to plan safer seizure control; changes must be supervised.

2. BContinue without review

   Continuing valproate without review ignores its important fetal risks.

3. CDouble the dose to prevent seizures during the early weeks of pregnancy

   Doubling the dose increases exposure without a clinical justification.

4. DStop all medication suddenly

   Abrupt withdrawal risks uncontrolled seizures and should not be advised.

Reference: SCFHS exam blueprint, u1: Pre-pregnancy and Family Planning; ICM Essential Competencies for Midwifery Practice (2019); WHO recommendations on intrapartum and antenatal care (2016/2018); Myles Textbook for Midwives

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Practice question Unit: Pre-pregnancy and Family Planning

1. AA smoker aged ≥35 smoking ≥15 cigarettes/day ✓ Correct answer

   Age at least 35 with at least 15 cigarettes daily creates an unacceptable cardiovascular risk for combined hormonal contraception.

2. BA woman with irregular periods

   Irregular periods alone are not this category-4 cardiovascular contraindication.

3. CA woman with a family history of breast cancer but no personal history

   Family history without personal breast cancer is not the contraindication described.

4. DA healthy 22-year-old non-smoker

   Young age and no smoking do not by themselves make combined contraception category 4.

Reference: SCFHS exam blueprint, u1: Pre-pregnancy and Family Planning; ICM Essential Competencies for Midwifery Practice (2019); WHO recommendations on intrapartum and antenatal care (2016/2018); Myles Textbook for Midwives

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Practice question Unit: Pregnancy (Low and High Risk)

1. AQuickening

   Quickening is subjective and varies between pregnancies.

2. BFundal height at 30 weeks

   Later fundal height varies with fetal growth and maternal factors.

3. CThird-trimester biparietal diameter, which is more precise than early scans

   Third-trimester biometry has more variation from growth than early CRL dating.

4. DFirst-trimester ultrasound crown–rump length ✓ Correct answer

   First-trimester crown–rump length has the best dating precision among these methods.

Reference: SCFHS exam blueprint, u2: Pregnancy (Low and High Risk); ICM Essential Competencies for Midwifery Practice (2019); WHO recommendations on intrapartum and antenatal care (2016/2018); Myles Textbook for Midwives

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Practice question Unit: Pregnancy (Low and High Risk)

1. AFull blood count

   A full blood count does not specifically quantify fetal cells.

2. BKleihauer–Betke test ✓ Correct answer

   Kleihauer–Betke estimates fetal red cells in maternal blood to help quantify fetomaternal haemorrhage.

3. CCoombs test only

   Coombs testing identifies antibodies or antibody coating, not the fetal-cell volume.

4. DFasting glucose measured at the same time as blood group

   Fasting glucose does not measure fetomaternal haemorrhage.

Reference: SCFHS exam blueprint, u2: Pregnancy (Low and High Risk); ICM Essential Competencies for Midwifery Practice (2019); WHO recommendations on intrapartum and antenatal care (2016/2018); Myles Textbook for Midwives

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Practice question Unit: Pregnancy (Low and High Risk)

1. ANIPT (cell-free DNA)

   Cell-free DNA is a screening test; an abnormal result needs diagnostic confirmation.

2. BQuadruple test performed at sixteen weeks of gestation

   The quadruple test estimates chromosomal-abnormality risk rather than establishing diagnosis.

3. CNuchal translucency

   Nuchal translucency is a screening marker, not a definitive chromosome test.

4. DChorionic villus sampling ✓ Correct answer

   CVS obtains placental tissue for diagnostic chromosomal testing.

Reference: SCFHS exam blueprint, u2: Pregnancy (Low and High Risk); ICM Essential Competencies for Midwifery Practice (2019); WHO recommendations on intrapartum and antenatal care (2016/2018); Myles Textbook for Midwives

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Practice question Unit: Labor and Obstetrics Emergencies

1. ASubmentobregmatic 9.5 cm

   The submentobregmatic diameter presents with a fully extended face, not a flexed vertex.

2. BMentovertical 13.5 cm

   The large mentovertical diameter is associated with brow presentation.

3. CSuboccipitobregmatic 9.5 cm ✓ Correct answer

   A well-flexed vertex presents the suboccipitobregmatic diameter, approximately 9.5 cm.

4. DOccipitofrontal 11.5 cm

   The occipitofrontal diameter presents with incomplete flexion of the head.

Reference: SCFHS exam blueprint, u3: Labor and Obstetrics Emergencies; ICM Essential Competencies for Midwifery Practice (2019); WHO recommendations on intrapartum and antenatal care (2016/2018); Myles Textbook for Midwives

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Practice question Unit: Labor and Obstetrics Emergencies

1. APubic symphysis upper border

   The upper pubic symphysis is not the reference plane for fetal station.

2. BIschial spines ✓ Correct answer

   The ischial spines define zero station for the presenting bony part.

3. CPelvic brim

   The pelvic brim lies above the ischial-spine reference plane.

4. DPerineum

   The perineum lies below the zero-station reference plane.

Reference: SCFHS exam blueprint, u3: Labor and Obstetrics Emergencies; ICM Essential Competencies for Midwifery Practice (2019); WHO recommendations on intrapartum and antenatal care (2016/2018); Myles Textbook for Midwives

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Practice question Unit: Postpartum and Newborn

1. ALactose mainly

   Lactose provides energy but is not the defining immune-rich component asked here.

2. BIron

   Iron is present in milk, but colostrum is especially noted for immune factors.

3. CImmunoglobulins (IgA) ✓ Correct answer

   Colostrum contains abundant immune factors, including secretory IgA that protects mucosal surfaces.

4. DFat, which makes it look white and thin

   The protective distinction is not a high-fat white appearance.

Reference: SCFHS exam blueprint, u4: Postpartum and Newborn; ICM Essential Competencies for Midwifery Practice (2019); WHO recommendations on intrapartum and antenatal care (2016/2018); Myles Textbook for Midwives

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Practice question Unit: Postpartum and Newborn

1. AUterine contraction

   Oxytocin, not prolactin, directly stimulates uterine contraction.

2. BMilk production ✓ Correct answer

   Prolactin stimulates milk synthesis in the mammary gland.

3. COvulation

   Raised prolactin tends to suppress reproductive cycling rather than cause ovulation.

4. DMilk ejection (let-down) reflex triggered by the baby's cry

   Oxytocin causes milk ejection; prolactin supports milk production.

Reference: SCFHS exam blueprint, u4: Postpartum and Newborn; ICM Essential Competencies for Midwifery Practice (2019); WHO recommendations on intrapartum and antenatal care (2016/2018); Myles Textbook for Midwives

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Practice question Unit: Gynecology

1. AGrey discharge with odour that worsens after menstruation

   Thin grey malodorous discharge suggests bacterial vaginosis.

2. BPainless chancre

   A painless chancre suggests primary syphilis rather than typical herpes.

3. CWarts

   Genital warts are associated with HPV, not the typical HSV lesions.

4. DPainful vesicles/ulcers ✓ Correct answer

   Grouped painful vesicles that ulcerate are characteristic of genital herpes.

Reference: SCFHS exam blueprint, u5: Gynecology; ICM Essential Competencies for Midwifery Practice (2019); WHO recommendations on intrapartum and antenatal care (2016/2018); Myles Textbook for Midwives

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