SCFHS Classification Exam – Anaesthesia Technologist (Specialist): free practice test

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Practice test questions with answers and explanations

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01During a preoperative airway assessment, Mr. Faisal opens his mouth fully and protrudes his tongue while seated. The soft palate and only the base of the uvula are visible. Which Mallampati class does this describe?

Practice question Unit: Respiratory/Airway

  1. AClass I

    Class I shows the soft palate, fauces, the whole uvula and the tonsillar pillars.

  2. BClass IV

    In class IV the soft palate is not visible at all; only the hard palate is seen.

  3. CClass III ✓ Correct answer

    Class III shows the soft palate and only the base of the uvula, which matches this view.

  4. DClass II

    Class II shows the soft palate, fauces and most of the uvula, not just its base.

Reference: SCFHS Anaesthesia Technologist Examination Content Guideline (V1.220901, 2024), Section 1: Respiratory/Airway, p. 2; Morgan & Mikhail, Clinical Anesthesiology, 5th ed., chapter: Airway Management

02After a thyroidectomy, a patient in recovery has a hoarse voice. The surgeon suspects injury to the nerve that supplies all intrinsic laryngeal muscles except the cricothyroid. Which nerve is this?

Practice question Unit: Respiratory/Airway

  1. ARecurrent laryngeal nerve ✓ Correct answer

    The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies every intrinsic laryngeal muscle apart from the cricothyroid and is at risk in thyroid surgery.

  2. BExternal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

    This branch supplies only the cricothyroid, the one muscle excluded in the question.

  3. CHypoglossal nerve

    The hypoglossal nerve moves the tongue and does not supply the laryngeal muscles.

  4. DGlossopharyngeal nerve

    The glossopharyngeal nerve carries sensation from the posterior tongue and pharynx, not laryngeal motor supply.

Reference: SCFHS Anaesthesia Technologist Examination Content Guideline (V1.220901, 2024), Section 1: Respiratory/Airway, p. 2; Morgan & Mikhail, Clinical Anesthesiology, 5th ed., chapter: Airway Management

03During a case using oxygen and nitrous oxide, the oxygen supply pressure falls. An alarm sounds and nitrous oxide flow stops. Which machine safety feature caused the flow to stop?

Practice question Unit: Anaesthesia Equipment

  1. AThe oxygen flush

    The flush adds oxygen; it does not stop nitrous oxide.

  2. BThe vaporiser interlock

    The interlock prevents two vaporisers being on together.

  3. CThe APL valve

    The APL valve controls circuit pressure, not gas supply.

  4. DThe fail-safe valve ✓ Correct answer

    The fail-safe valve shuts off or reduces other gases when oxygen supply pressure falls.

Reference: SCFHS Anaesthesia Technologist Examination Content Guideline (V1.220901, 2024), Section 2: Anaesthesia Equipment, p. 2; Al-Shaikh & Stacey, Essentials of Anaesthetic Equipment, 7th ed., chapter: The Anaesthetic Machine; Morgan & Mikhail, Clinical Anesthesiology, 5th ed., chapter: The Anesthesia Machine

04A patient's heart rate is 80/min and the estimated stroke volume is 70 mL. What is the cardiac output?

Practice question Unit: Cardiovascular

  1. A7.0 L/min

    This would need a heart rate of 100/min.

  2. B4.2 L/min

    This would need a stroke volume of about 52 mL.

  3. C5.6 L/min ✓ Correct answer

    Cardiac output = heart rate × stroke volume = 80 × 70 mL = 5,600 mL/min.

  4. D15.0 L/min

    Adding rather than multiplying gives meaningless values.

Reference: SCFHS Anaesthesia Technologist Examination Content Guideline (V1.220901, 2024), Section 3: Cardiovascular, p. 2; Morgan & Mikhail, Clinical Anesthesiology, 5th ed., chapter: Cardiovascular Physiology & Anesthesia

05A patient is group A RhD positive. Apart from group A, which red cell group is ABO-compatible for her?

Practice question Unit: Transfusion

  1. AGroup O, carrying neither antigen ✓ Correct answer

    She has anti-B, so cells with B antigen are excluded; group O cells have neither antigen.

  2. BGroup B, as she is Rh positive

    Her anti-B would destroy group B cells.

  3. CAny group, if the cells are washed

    Washing does not remove red cell antigens.

  4. DGroup AB, as it contains antigen A

    AB cells also carry antigen B.

Reference: SCFHS Anaesthesia Technologist Examination Content Guideline (V1.220901, 2024), Section 4: Transfusion, p. 2; Morgan & Mikhail, Clinical Anesthesiology, 5th ed., chapter: Fluid Management & Blood Component Therapy

06During CPR on an intubated patient, ETCO₂ stays around 8 mmHg. What does this most suggest?

Practice question Unit: Resuscitation and Crisis

  1. AReturn of spontaneous circulation

    Return of circulation usually produces a sustained sudden rise in ETCO₂, not a persistently low value.

  2. BHyperventilation is needed

    Increasing ventilation is not the response to poor perfusion and may worsen venous return.

  3. CThe tube is definitely in the oesophagus

    The number alone does not prove oesophageal placement; use waveform assessment and clinical tube confirmation.

  4. DLow blood flow; reassess compression quality ✓ Correct answer

    Persistently low ETCO₂ during CPR suggests low pulmonary flow: check compression rate, depth, recoil and other causes.

Reference: SCFHS Anaesthesia Technologist Examination Content Guideline (V1.220901, 2024), Section 5: Resuscitation and Crisis, p. 2; AHA Guidelines for CPR and Emergency Cardiovascular Care (2025); Morgan & Mikhail, Clinical Anesthesiology, 5th ed., chapter: Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

07A flexible bronchoscope cannot tolerate steam. How is it usually reprocessed between patients?

Practice question Unit: Patient safety and Infection control

  1. AAutoclaving at 134 °C

    It would be damaged.

  2. BRinsing with tap water

    This does not disinfect.

  3. CWiping the outside with alcohol

    Channels remain contaminated.

  4. DCleaning, then high-level disinfection ✓ Correct answer

    As a heat-sensitive semi-critical item, it is cleaned and then given high-level chemical disinfection.

Reference: SCFHS Anaesthesia Technologist Examination Content Guideline (V1.220901, 2024), Section 6: Patient safety and Infection control, p. 2; Woodworth, The Anesthesia Technician and Technologist's Manual (2014), topic: Infection control; CDC Guideline for Disinfection and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities (2008, updated 2019)

08You set up a TIVA infusion and IV fluids through the same cannula. Which component helps prevent the drug backing up into the fluid line?

Practice question Unit: General Anaesthesia

  1. AAn in-line particle filter on the drug line

    A particle filter traps material but is not a directional flow-control valve.

  2. BA one-way valve on the fluid line ✓ Correct answer

    An anti-reflux valve in the fluid line prevents drug from flowing backwards into that branch.

  3. CA longer cannula

    Cannula length does not create a one-way barrier in the fluid branch.

  4. DA three-way tap left open

    An open three-way tap allows communication between branches and does not itself stop backflow.

Reference: SCFHS Anaesthesia Technologist Examination Content Guideline (V1.220901, 2024), Section 7: General Anaesthesia, p. 2; Woodworth, The Anesthesia Technician and Technologist's Manual (2014), topic: General anaesthesia; Morgan & Mikhail, Clinical Anesthesiology, 5th ed., chapter: Intravenous Anesthetics

09The anaesthesiologist asks for a pencil-point spinal needle rather than a cutting needle. What is the main advantage?

Practice question Unit: Regional Anaesthesia

  1. AIt is cheaper

    Cost is not the main point.

  2. BLess post-dural puncture headache ✓ Correct answer

    Pencil-point needles spread rather than cut dural fibres, reducing CSF leak.

  3. CFaster onset of block

    Needle type does not change onset.

  4. DIt allows an epidural catheter to be threaded through it into the space

    That needs a Tuohy needle.

Reference: SCFHS Anaesthesia Technologist Examination Content Guideline (V1.220901, 2024), Section 8: Regional Anaesthesia, p. 2; Morgan & Mikhail, Clinical Anesthesiology, 5th ed., chapter: Spinal, Epidural, & Caudal Blocks; Woodworth, The Anesthesia Technician and Technologist's Manual (2014), topic: Regional anaesthesia

10In the anaesthetic room, an adult patient with capacity says he no longer wants the operation. What should happen?

Practice question Unit: Ethics, Professionalism and Research

  1. AContinue, as consent was signed

    A previously signed form does not prevent a capable patient from withdrawing consent.

  2. BStop; tell the doctors to discuss it ✓ Correct answer

    Stop the preparation and inform the doctors so they can clarify wishes, discuss consequences and document the decision.

  3. CTell him that it is too late to change his mind now that he is in theatre

    Entering theatre does not remove the right to change one’s mind before treatment.

  4. DSedate him to calm him

    Giving sedatives to override a valid refusal disregards the patient’s autonomy.

Reference: SCFHS Anaesthesia Technologist Examination Content Guideline (V1.220901, 2024), Section 9: Ethics, Professionalism and Research, p. 2; Professional ethics and conduct for healthcare practitioners (topic)